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How did parts of the "Doxology" find their way into modern scriptures?

This doxology appears to be a Catholic invention as it does not appear in either the Old or the New Testaments. It first appears in the Divine Liturgy of St. John Chrysostomos, a liturgy from the Eastern Church that dates back to the 4th century. Even with the reformation, the Church of England kept this doxology, included it in the Book of Common Prayer, and uses it as do Catholics to end the reading of Psalms, and other scriptures like the Magnificat and the Nunc Dimittis. If this doxology had not obviously predated Joseph Smith, modern day scriptures could have been used as its source. It appears however, that modern day scriptures have been influenced by this traditional Christian doxology popular at the time of Joseph Smith.

For example, "Glory be to the Father" does not appear in the Bible but it can be found in D&C 19:19: "Nevertheless, glory be to the Father, and I partook and finished my preparations unto the children of men." It is also interesting to see that the words "glory be" only appear twice in the Old Testament (in Psalms 57), not at all in the New Testament, but three times in the D&C, one time in Moses and one time in the JST Genesis.

"As it was in the beginning" never occurs in the KJV of the Bible, however Joseph Smith uses it four times:

Jacob 5:75
"And it came to pass that when the Lord of the vineyard saw that his fruit was good, and that his vineyard was no more corrupt, he called up his servants, and said unto them: Behold, for this last time have we nourished my vineyard; and thou beholdest that I have done according to my will; and I have preserved the natural fruit, that it is good, even like as it was in the beginning. And blessed art thou; for because ye have been diligent in laboring with me in my vineyard, and have kept my commandments, and have brought unto me again the natural fruit, that my vineyard is no more corrupted, and the bad is cast away, behold ye shall have joy with me because of the fruit of my vineyard."

4 Nephi 1:39
"And it was because of the wickedness and abomination of their fathers, even as it was in the beginning. And they were taught to hate the children of God, even as the Lamanites were taught to hate the children of Nephi from the beginning."

Moses 8:16
"And it came to pass that Noah prophesied, and taught the things of God, even as it was in the beginning."

JST Genesis 8:4
"And it came to pass, that Noah prophesied, and taught the things of God, even as it was in the beginning."

Also, "and ever shall be" does not occur in the KJV. We would have to go to the D&C to find this phrase:

D&C 46:2
"But notwithstanding those things which are written, it always has been given to the elders of my church from the beginning, and ever shall be, to conduct all meetings as they are directed and guided by the Holy Spirit."

(However "ever shall be" occurs once in Matt 24:21. The Book of Mormon uses it once, and the JST uses it three times in the New Testament).

The only part of the doxology in question that comes directly from the Bible is "world without end". The Old and New Testaments use "world without end":

Ephesians 3:21
"Unto him [be] glory in the church by Christ Jesus throughout all ages, world without end. Amen."

Isaiah 45:17
"[But] Israel shall be saved in the LORD with an everlasting salvation: ye shall not be ashamed nor confounded world without end."

The D&C introduces: worlds without end

D&C 76:112
"And they shall be servants of the Most High; but where God and Christ dwell they cannot come, worlds without end." (Catholics occasionally use "worlds" in this doxology during Easter.)

Doesn't this suggest that modern day scriptures have been directly influenced from the Christian environment in which they were "translated" or "received"?

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